A comment

Jason errancy@infidels.org
Thu, 10 Jun 1999 18:45:18 -0500 (00929076318, 3.0.3.32.19990610184518.0069ba64@acelink.net)


At 07:29 PM 6/10/99 -0400, you wrote:

>Jason:
>Redone: What do you mean "it proves nothing"? God, that is Jesus Christ, is a
>personal God and He acts on a personal level, as well as public. It might
>not prove it to *you* specifically because it's not your
>experience, but it does prove that God does work in
>individual lives.
>
>Am i contradicting myelf now?
>
>RevGaud
>What I meant was that your supposition was based on the speculation
>"if existing...", that is, you said "if God exists it proves he works
>in individual lives." You can't have it as proof that God works in
>people's lives while at the same time saying "if he exists."
>
>You're begging the questions: What "proof" do you have that "God is a
>persoanl God?" And what proof do you have that he works in individual
>lives? Personal experience is not proof that God exists and it is not
>proof that God is a "personal God". It isn't proof of anything but a
>personal experience. It's all very subjective.
Jason: Is murder subjective? Is rape subjective? Those are personal experiences to. Using the logic you've used, i could say that love doesn't exist. I could say that depression doesn't exist. I could say that fear doesn't exist. Those are personal experiences to. Do you believe in moral absolutes? If you don't and think that it's relative, then you deny an absolute's defense. If you say that moral absolutes do not exist, it's a contradiction because that in itself is an absolute. Morality is personal experience to. Does that mean it's limited to one person? ----------------------------------- "Which is worse: A Christian who does not know what he is talking about or an atheist who does not know what he is talking about?" http://www.origins.org