Biblical/Jesus errors

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Hi Group! Hi Jilo!

JILO
(snip)
The Pharisees attempted on several occasoins to catch Jesus in error but
they could not.  And dont you think that who were so skilled in the law and
so prideful of it that even wore little scrolls on their foreheads would not
have recognized this error in Jesus' words or even after the writing of
those words would have delightfully pointe dout the error?  But they went
away frustrated and that didnt stop them they tried again and eventually
attacked his person and eventually put him to death.

Dave
   Do you really think if a gospel writer had admitted an instance where the
scribes or Pharasees had tripped Jesus up in a conversation he would have been
added to the NT cannon? Do you think any devoted follower of Jesus, in sifting
through the various accounts before writing his book would have admitted they
nailed him even if they did? You are assuming the accuracy of the account here.
If Matthew and Luke omitted the mention of Abithar how do you know that Mark did
not omit the Jews nailing Jesus on his error? Of course it is possible that Mark
was unaware of who the high priest was when he wrote this account and didn't
bother to check it out. If his source said Jesus said such and such he belived
it and wrote it down. Matthew and Luke knew better.

JILO
Jesus stated that Davids action occured ' in the days of Abiathar the high
priest' but the high priest was actually his father Ahimelech(1 sam 21.1) A
plausible explaination is to render the phrase 'in the passage about
Abiathar the high priest'(see Mk12.26)

DAVE
  Please supply some evidence that this is a "plausible" explanation.  I could
argue that the greek phrase found in Mark 2:26 could "plausibly" be rendered
"before Abithar became high priest" but without citing some support for that
claim it is worthless. I know there are scholars for about any position, so you
may have one. I just want to know who he is, where he said it and his reason for
saying it. A book title, page number and supporting reasons would be helpful.
Thanks.

JILO
 (I dont think there were chapters and
verses back then)This was a customary way of indicating the section of the
OT where the desired incident could be found .

DAVE
  Again, provide some evidence that this was a "customary" way of indicating the
section of the OT where the story was to be found.  Find some examples where
this "customary" usage is evident. I hope your scholar has some examples.
Remember, the greek word is "epi" which literally meant "upon", and it was used
in the genitive of person. Find all examples of "epi" used in the genitive of
person and do a word search in some lexicons and greek word study books. If it
was "customary" you will find some examples from the literature of that time.

JILO
.Abiathar became high priest
shortly after Ahimelech and proved more prominent than he thus justifiying
the use of his name here.


Dave
   Why? Because you say so? Good grief, Jilo, how could you distinguish a false
prophet from a true prophet or a true statement from a false statement with
logic like that? If I claimed to be God incarnate and I said Bill Clinton was
president when Desert Storm broke out (confusing it with Desert Fox) would that
not give you at least a clue something was amiss? Of course my devoted followers
could claim, "Well, Bill Clinton was more prominent, so he was justified inusing
his name in that instance"...

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