Inerrancy

• Messages sorted by: [ date ][ thread ][ subject ][ author ]

 <snip>

XIANAPOL:

I am suggesting nothing of the sort.  The original question asked if a
misspelling in the text or improper grammar would be proof that the bible
was
not inspired.  I said no.  I said that those types of errors can easily be
explained simply by a translator missing a grammatical point as he/she wrote
the sentence or a typesetter missing it as he/she set the type.   Certainly,
you could not blame God or the original authors if you pick up a bible
somewhere and find a misspelling or grammar error.   I am not saying that
that
accounts for the supposed errors or contradictions that are alleged to exist
within the content of the bible.   We have some very good translations
available to us.  I am simply talking about a grammar or spelling error in
the
English text of a specific bible you might pick up.

EDWARDS
Point taken, but what about the grammar/spelling errors as well as the
errors of geography in the Greek text?

• Previous message: Inerrancy
• Next message: Inerrancy
• Messages sorted by: [ date ][ thread ][ subject ][ author ]