Fw: Gestas and Dysmus

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JASON FILLEY

1.	Please reconcile the following problems concerning the statements of 
the criminals on either side of Jesus during the crucifixion:

Matthew:  The two criminals 'reviled him in the same way' as the crowd.
Luke:	One criminal reviles him, but the other recognizes him as the son of God.
Mark:	The criminals also reviled him.
John:	Two criminals mentioned, but no quotes from them.

Specifically, Luke disagrees with Mark and Matthew.  John, stressing signs 
as the proof of Jesus' divinity, doesn't see anything spectacular about the 
comments of a crucified criminal, especially since nothing miraculous is 
happening - Jesus is just hanging there naked, nailed to a cross.

Explain why the accounts differ and explain why John didn't quote the 
criminals.

2.	Apply the same standards you use in your harmonization  to the texts 
from the 'Narrative of Joseph of Arimathaea' and the 'Gospel of Nicodemus' 
(included below).

Is there a single item in them that cannot be harmonized with the canonical 
accounts?

3.	Finally, without using words like 'obvious,' 'evident,' or 'patently,' 
explain how we can determine which (if any) of these accounts are 
historically accurate, as opposed to pure theological fiction.  Please 
remember that we can't just dismiss a claim merely because it SOUNDS 
ludicrous or fabricated.  Otherwise, we could just offhandedly reject the 
claim that Lazarus, Jesus, and 'many saints' came back from the dead.  One 
person's fairy tales are another person's dogma.

And be careful not to argue from silence.

*snip*

RON
 The different Gospels were the product of different eyewitness and 
written accounts. The fact that the two criminals reviled Jesus does not 
rule out the fact that one of them repented and asked for His 
forgiveness. I see no reason whatsoever that I should accept those other 
apocryphal accounts which have not been selected by the Church as 
authentic. It doesn't matter if they are derived from the Gospel 
accounts or otherwise.

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