1 Timothy 5:18

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I'm sure this has come up before, but what's the take on 1 Tim 5:18?  The
writer refers to the phrase "The worker deserves his wages" as scripture,
when this saying is recorded in the bible only in Luke 10:7.  The
bibliolaters (well, the better read ones, anyway) like to cite this as
evidence that GoL was in circulation and regarded as scriptural in Paul's
lifetime.

I do not believe this.  I hold to the view of the pastorals being
pseudo-Pauline; at the time of their writing, GoL could well have been in
circulation and regarded as authoritative.  If 1 Timothy should happen to be
Pauline, then the addition of the phrase in question could represent a
scribal addition introduced some decades after its composition.

Ideas?

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