Genesis 1 (Ian)
Matthew Bell mbkbell@aapi.co.uk
Fri, 27 Feb 1998 21:19:58 -0000 (00888635998, 19980228150556281.AAA1068@mbell.aapi.co.uk)
MATT
1. Where do you derive the idea that God apparently created water?
IAN
1. Well, you might have me here Matt. I jumped the gun. You see, vs. 6
says, "Let there be a firmament in the midst of the waters." without the
creation of the waters. So the waters had to have already been created.
But you are right, I jumped ahead a verse.
MATT
You don't need to go as far as v6 to find the 'waters' as they are
mentioned in v2: 'the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters'
('and darkness was upon the face of the deep' could also be considered a
reference to them), when did God create these waters?
IAN
You're the expert Matt, you tell me.
MATT
Not an expert Ian but I'll share what I think based on what I have read. v2
is how the heaven(s) and the earth were after God had completed the initial
act of creation - i.e. 'without form, void, waters'. What would be wrong
about this proposition?
MATT
2. What do you understand the term 'heaven' to mean?
IAN
The sky.
MATT: Why do you conclude it to be limited to the sky and not the universe?
IAN
If you can show that it is the universe, why don't you show me? Chapter and
verse please.
MATT
My point is not to demonstrate it does refer to the universe but to
ascertain why you consider the word 'heaven' to be limited to the skies?
<snip agreed points>
Thanks
Matt