The LXX (Hebrews 10:5) (Matt Bell)
Helen Willis hhiwater@BRIGHT.NET
Mon, 27 Apr 1998 10:29:01 -0700 (00893716141, 3544C05C.346D@bright.net)
Matthew Bell wrote:
>
> MATT BELL
> Helen, this is one response on the Hebrews 10:5 'problem'. No doubt the cry
> of specuation will arise from some quarters which is fair enough. So is the
> 'copying error' theory. Look forward to your comments.
>
> The Septuagint - A Critical Analysis 1996
> 5th Edition
> Revised
> (First Edition 1989)
> FLOYD NOLEN JONES, Th.D., Ph.D.
> FLOYD JONES MINISTRIES, INC.
> 8222 Glencliffe Lane
> Houston, Texas
> The second O.T. quotation causing difficulty is Hebrews 10:5:
>
> Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering
> thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me:
>
> Hebrews 10:5-7 is basically a quote of Psalm 40:6-8. The above portion is
> found in this form in the majority of the LXX manuscripts that contain the
> verses. The Hebrew text, however, reads:
>
> Sacrifice and offering thou didst not desire; mine ears hast thou opened:
> (Psa. 40:6)
>
> instead of "but a body hast thou prepared me" (compare underlined
> segments). Because of this, the author of the Book of Hebrews has been
> charged with using a mistranslation of the Hebrew text as a support for the
> Christian doctrine of Christ's atoning death. However, such is not the
> only explanation for the discrepancy. In Psalm 40 and Hebrews 10, the
> emphasis is not so much on the sacrifice of Christ's body as it is on His
> willing obedience which made the sacrifice of His body so effectual.
> Because of this emphasis, the inspired author of Hebrews was led by the
> Holy Spirit to inject at this point a paraphrase/interpretation – His own
> commentary. The words "mine ears" infers that there is a "body" available
> that can be sacrificed. Thus, the force of the verse as recorded in
> Hebrews 10 is "I voluntarily submit my body". "Ears" has been reworded,
> without violation, to tailor fit the context.
>
> Lest this be seen as unjustifiable, the reader is reminded that similar
> situations arise often in the wording of O.T. quotes as chronicled in the
> New Testament. Such freedom and leeway is even found with regard to
> context. For example, with no prior knowledge of the Gospels, who upon
> reading Hosea 11:1:
>
> When Israel was a child, I loved him, and out of Egypt I called My son.
>
> would ever perceive that the verse applies not only to the nation Israel,
> but was also a double reference pertaining equally to the Messiah. Yet the
> Holy Spirit so directed Matthew to make that association in the birth
> narrative of the Lord Jesus (2:15).
>
> Moreover, it is affirmed that the clause "mine ears hast thou opened" in
> Psalm 40:6 is cross referenced by Isaiah 50:4-10 (esp. note verse 5).
> Here, the "tongue and ear of the learned" clearly pertain to a person, i.e.
> a body, and specifically that person is the Messiah (cp. vs. 6 to Mat.
> 26:67; 27:26, 30; John 18:22, and vs. 7 to Luk. 9:51). Further, the 9th
> verse of Isaiah 50, as well as Psalm 102:26, is a reference to Heb. 1:11.
> This verse is obviously at the very beginning of the author's reasoning as
> he contends over the person (and finished work) of Jesus as being God come
> in the flesh – the very Messiah – his argument culminating as it does in
> Hebrews 10. This connects unequivocally all of Isaiah 50:4-10 to the
> prolonged Hebrew thesis.
>
> Lastly, we note that "opening of the ear" in Bible context is a reference
> to Exo. 21:6. Here the act of opening the ear is explained as that of a
> voluntary act on the part of a servant. The deed is done out of love and
> total dedication to one's master. The one offering his ear to be bored
> through with an awl so does to indicate that his whole being (his very
> body!) belongs to his master forever. The opening of Christ's ears
> depicting for all that He is voluntarily submitting as an obedient servant
> to the will of His Father is, in light of the anticipational Exodus
> passage, therefore seen as the first step in the preparation of Christ
> Jesus' body for His obedient once for all sacrifice.
>
> Finally, we submit that the Hebrews 10:5 rendering is the original wording
> and God guided interpretation of Psalm 40:6 with regard to its application
> to the central message of the Hebrew Epistle. Additionally, that as in the
> first instance involving Heb. 1:6, the writer of the LXX is writing after
> the fact. We submit that he had the Epistle to the Hebrews in front of him
> as he translated and that he altered the original Hebrew to force Psalm 40
> to match Heb. 1:6 – not understanding the import of that which we have
> heretofore proclaimed.
HELEN:
This is such a reach, if the author of Hebrews wanted to refer to the
laws about slavery then why didn't he quote the laws on slavery. Jesus
didn't have his ear pierced with an awl, he had his hands and feet
pierced with nails. The Exodus verse refers to one ear "pierced" and it
is done in a doorway, the quoted psalm verse refers to both ears
"opened" and there is no mention of the doorway. Moreover, the psalm
verse seem to be poetically referring to finally or improved hearing and
is probably symbolic. I've had my ears pierced. It hurt but didn't help
my hearing either really or symbolically.
Finally, Matt, the meaning of the whole of Psalm 40 would seem to me to
be the same as Proverbs 21:3, Micah 6:6-8, and Hosea 6:6 that God does
NOT want any sacrifices but certain kinds of behavior and attitudes from
his people. Now, if Jesus wanted to do what God wanted in this Psalm
wont he have acted correctly, strived to think rightly, proclaimed God's
law, and NOT given a sacrifice? Isn't that what the Psalm says God
wants? If God doesn't want sacrifice, why is Jesus giving one? Aren't we
supposed to do what God wants?
Helen
hhiwater@bright.net