Modalist view of Jesus [was Re: The Supreme Sacrifice]

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PATRICK

> 2.) Jesus rebukes his mother (JN 2:4)


BRIDEAN
The "Catholic" explanation of this is that the Greek (or Aramaic) word for
"Woman"
that he uses was actually a term of respect.  Isn't it strange that after
dising her,
his mother then goes to the participants and tells them to do what Jesus
says
as if she knew he was going to perform the miracle anyway?

Also Mark Miravalle had a good argument (I can dig it out) saying that in
the original
language he doesn't ask "What does this have to do with me?" but he asks
"What
does this have to do with YOU AND ME?"

(note: Mark Miravalle is a somewhat well known expert on Mariology)

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