Fwd: Re: Jeremiah 8:8

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DAVE

>Hi everyone:

>

>Can anyone tell me why this verse does not prove that

>"scripture" had been modified in Jeremiah's day?

>

>Jer 8:8: "'How can you say, "We are wise, for we have the

>law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes

>has handled it falsely?"

>

>Dave Taylor

>


RONCRISS
  It DOES indicate that it was altered. The problem is one of 
athorization. For example, the Catholic Church at a later date selected 
those texts extant at the time as the inspired canon of Scripture, 
ruling out others. The Scripture is a tool for the use of the Church 
(Jewish and Christian). This underlines the necessity of a valid 
authority. The term "sola scriptura" is not found in the Bible. Jesus 
promised to guide His Church, not His scriptures.
  Pax, Ron


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