(Ron) Immediately - Why Ron is Simply Wrong

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>RON

>   In the word for word literal translation the verse is translated as

> "immediately, BUT after the tribulation (distress) of those days" Why

> the "but"? 


JAN
Please, please, please. If you're so interested in the Bible, why not study 
some Greek?  You could just as well ask why the two "do"s in "how do you 
do?" in English. Because that's the way it is. Duh!

"de" does not really mean "but". I guess "but" is the closest equivalent in 
English, and an interlinear must have *something* to write below the word, 
but it's extremely misleading to take this at face value if you're looking 
for a meaning. In Greek, "de"s are distributed liberally. It can be 
translated "and" or "but"; however very often the word is not translated at 
all. We learned to call it a postpositive particle, and I never learned any 
rule for where to throw it in (just that it's never first in a clause). 
After some time you just get the "feel" for the language, and throw it in 
wherever you've seen it done earlier in source texts.

Don't believe this particle changes the meaning of the text in any direction 
you would want to have it.




Jan S. Haugland
Graduate Student
Dept. of Classics and History of Religions
University of Bergen, Norway

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