1 Step at a Time (MATT)

Farrell Till jftill@midwest.net
Mon, 29 Sep 1997 19:12:42 -0500 (CDT) (00875599962, 199709300012.TAA16590@cdale3.midwest.net)


TILL
Let's just put this issue into focus with a question that Matt should be
able to answer.  ARE THERE ANY PEOPLE NOW LIVING ANYWHERE ON EARTH WHOSE
ATTITUDE TOWARD JESUS COULD ACCURATELY BE REPRESENTED WITH THE WORD
"INDIFFERENT"?

MATT
Yes there would be, but this must be qualified by stating that from a
Scriptural perspective indifference=against and never for.

TILL
Oh, it does?  Then Mark 9:40 is erroneous in saying that he that is not
against us (indifferent) is for us?

MATT
Ok Till work through this with me step by step.

We have:

Position 1. Matt 12:30 "He that is not with me is against me..."

I see this as giving us:

a) with Jesus = for
b) not with Jesus = against

This ok so far?

Question: are the indifferent 'with Jesus'?

TILL
On the basis of what Matthew 12:30 says, the indifferent are against Jesus,
but aside from that being a logical absurdity, you have the problem of Mark
9:40, which says that he who is not "against us" is "for us."  That too is a
logical absurdity.  When you put the two together, you have  X but not X
assertions in the Bible.  Why would that not be a contradiction?  You are
familiar with the logical law of contradiction, which says that the same
object cannot simultaneously be X but not X, aren't you?




Farrell Till
Skepticism, Inc.
jftill@midwest.net