3rd or 6th hour?
Steven Carr steven@bowness.demon.co.uk
Sun, 5 Oct 1997 19:18:12 +0100 (00876097092, OgjVsFAkn9N0Ewy+@bowness.demon.co.uk)
In message <Pine.SOL.3.90.971005100609.10395A-
100000@asp.aml.Arizona.EDU>, Chris Ashton <cashton@asp.aml.arizona.edu>
writes
> I have a question regarding the discreprancy between Mark 15:25 and
>John 19:14. The former verse says Jesus was crucified at the third hour
>(9am) and the other says he was delivered to be crucified at the sixth
>hour (noon?). The general explanation I have heard is that the former is
>in Jewish time (12 hours from sunrise to sunset) and Roman time (24 hours
>from midnight to midnight). By that explanation, Jesus was delivered to
>be crucified at 6am, and then 3 hours later, he was tacked up. This view
>has support with John 1:39, which says that Andrew and Peter spent the
>day with Jesus after meeting at the 10th hour. If this refers to 4pm,
>Jewish time, it is too late to spend the day, but if it refers to 10am,
>there would be no problem.
>
> My question is this: was there a distinction between Roman and Jewish
>time in the 1st century? How do we know? How did each culture measure
>their time? Does anyone know where I can go further to find out about this?
There was a distinction between Roman and Jewish method of counting
hours, but both Mark and John were using the Roman system.
Interestingly, even the JWs conceded that there was a discrepancy here,
but people were not to worry about it as both inspired writers were
writing with Holy Spirit.
It seems the Bible has no errors even when it has errors.
>Visit the Other Side,
--
Steven Carr steven@bowness.demon.co.uk
Visit the UK's leading atheist Web page
http://www.bowness.demon.co.uk/