3rd or 6th hour?
Chris Ashton cashton@asp.aml.arizona.edu
Sun, 5 Oct 1997 10:19:51 -0700 (MST) (00876093591, Pine.SOL.3.90.971005100609.10395A-100000@asp.aml.Arizona.EDU)
I have a question regarding the discreprancy between Mark 15:25 and
John 19:14. The former verse says Jesus was crucified at the third hour
(9am) and the other says he was delivered to be crucified at the sixth
hour (noon?). The general explanation I have heard is that the former is
in Jewish time (12 hours from sunrise to sunset) and Roman time (24 hours
from midnight to midnight). By that explanation, Jesus was delivered to
be crucified at 6am, and then 3 hours later, he was tacked up. This view
has support with John 1:39, which says that Andrew and Peter spent the
day with Jesus after meeting at the 10th hour. If this refers to 4pm,
Jewish time, it is too late to spend the day, but if it refers to 10am,
there would be no problem.
My question is this: was there a distinction between Roman and Jewish
time in the 1st century? How do we know? How did each culture measure
their time? Does anyone know where I can go further to find out about this?
Thanks,
Chris
--
Visit the Other Side, http://www.u.arizona.edu/~cashton/atheism/