(no subject)

Farrell Till (jftill@midwest.net)
Sun, 12 Jan 1997 23:50:10 -0600 (CST)

Hi, I'm new to the list, but I wonder how you can have a "partial"
flood. Just the Northern and Southern parts? Sounds like global to me.

TILL
I have made the same point. Since water seeks its own level, proponents of
a partial flood would have to explain how that water could heap itself into
a mound to cover the highest mountains in particular area and stay that way
for a year without seeking its own level. Let's take the floods on the west
coast as an example. The water is right now seeking its own level. As soon
as the rain stops and the snow in the mountains have stopped melting, the
rivers will return to their own banks rather quickly, the water trapped in
low grounds where it cannot flow out to sea will evaporate, and the flood
will be over. It would be absurd to imagine these flood waters remaining up
for almost eleven months after the rain has stopped, and this flood has come
no where close to covering the highest mountains in that area. So when the
rains stopped in Noah's day and the fountains of the deep were stopped (Gen.
8:2), the water would have receded rapidly as it sought its own level if
this were not a flood that covered the whole earth. If not, why not?

Baker cited an example of how he climbed to the highest part of a ship at
sea, where he could see for 25 miles, and saw nothing but water in all
directions, so he theorized that perhaps the mountains were not covered but
Noah just thought they were. Genesis 8:5 says that the waters "decreased
continually until the tenth month," and on the first day of that month, "the
tops of the mountains were seen." Is this "basically" an inerrant statement?
If the mountains were never covered with water and the waters decreased
continually, then why were just the "tops of the mountains" seen after ten
months? Could it be that the Bible is not "basically inerrant" as Baker is
so determined to believe?

Farrell Till
Skepticism, Inc.
jftill@midwest.net

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