Hebrews vs Psalms

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During a recent exchange with my brother over the Hebrews 10:5/Psalms 40:6
problem (i.e. the fact that Hebrews quotes the Septuagint, which differs
from the Hebrew in the crucial phrase), he came up with the following
"solution":

The Septuagint is actually a legitimate paraphrase of the Hebrew. The
phrase "opened my ears" is a reference to the ancient slave-owning policies
of the Jews, wherein the master of the house would bore through the slave's
ear if the slave elected lifetime service. Thus, the phrase "a body hast
thou prepared me" is a reference to this mutiliation, and thus means a
lifetime of sacrificial service.

Personally, I find this rather weak, but can anybody confrim my feeling.
(maybe Yoel?). What is the possibility that we are dealing with a genuine
paraphrase, and not simply a translation mistake?

-Curt

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